I just heard a story and need some validation from someone who may know for sure.
This guy lives is in FL and the wife moved to DR. Supposedly the guy got a divorce in the USA and just sent her the final decree to the DR ? she is saying that the divorce has been granted and is final. However, prior to this, she has never signed anything. This is the story she is telling my friend in DR?
I think that what he really sent her was the divorce order for her to sign and send back in order to make it final. For some reason, she doesn?t want to sign it though!
Question: If this is the divorce order and she doesn?t sign, then essentially they are NOT divorced yet, correct? It is my understanding that they are not divorced until she signs it and sends back ? then they get a final ruling which is signed by a judge and thats the final judgement.
However, let?s say she never signs ? she can?t really keep this guy from divorcing her, can she? If she doesn?t sign the paperwork, can he eventually get a settlement of the case if he doesn?t hear from her?
This guy lives is in FL and the wife moved to DR. Supposedly the guy got a divorce in the USA and just sent her the final decree to the DR ? she is saying that the divorce has been granted and is final. However, prior to this, she has never signed anything. This is the story she is telling my friend in DR?
I think that what he really sent her was the divorce order for her to sign and send back in order to make it final. For some reason, she doesn?t want to sign it though!
Question: If this is the divorce order and she doesn?t sign, then essentially they are NOT divorced yet, correct? It is my understanding that they are not divorced until she signs it and sends back ? then they get a final ruling which is signed by a judge and thats the final judgement.
However, let?s say she never signs ? she can?t really keep this guy from divorcing her, can she? If she doesn?t sign the paperwork, can he eventually get a settlement of the case if he doesn?t hear from her?