Reflexive verbs

mountainannie

Platinum
Dec 11, 2003
16,350
1,358
113
elizabetheames.blogspot.com
I am always confused by the signs that say "se vende" or "se Alquiler" thinking that they are using a reflexive form of a verb and the properties are selling themselves or renting themselves. This does not make any sense to me.

I am used to some reflexsive verbs in French but there seem to be a lot more in Spanish, or at least a lot more are used here. I saw a sign for some criminals at a police station once with the words "se busco" underneath them and joked with the police that no wonder they were sitting around the station as they had nothing to do since the crooks were looking for themselves.

When I look at the list of the verbs in Spanish here Reflexive Verbs and Pronouns the list makes sense, as in one is doing the actions to one's self, but when I hear/ see it, it often does not.
 
Last edited by a moderator:

TropicalPaul

Bronze
Sep 3, 2013
1,366
614
113
I'm not a Spanish expert, but I always thought of these similar to "on vend" in French, ie "one is selling".
 

Africaida

Gold
Jun 19, 2009
7,775
1,341
113
True that it is a looot more in Spanish then French. But my understanding is that in Spanish is used as an indefinite pronoun, just like when we use "on" in French.
Se vende is not a true reflexive in that sense, just means alguien vende.

Hope it makes sense.
 

mountainannie

Platinum
Dec 11, 2003
16,350
1,358
113
elizabetheames.blogspot.com
True that it is a looot more in Spanish then French. But my understanding is that in Spanish is used as an indefinite pronoun, just like when we use "on" in French.
Se vende is not a true reflexive in that sense, just means alguien vende.

Hope it makes sense.

OH!! wow! That makes total sense. If it is just "se" meaning "one" then I get it.

It is really embarassing to think of how much this has bugged me.

Of course, the reflexive (see that does not look right .. shouldn't there be an "s" in it?) in French grammar, which I really did study, used to drive me nuts, seemed a total waste of time. I bathed. why bother with I bathed myself?

That really helps me, Aida.. thanks
 

Africaida

Gold
Jun 19, 2009
7,775
1,341
113
Just thought about other cases where se with a verb is not really used as a reflexive...
With the verb perder for example. You can say perd? algo (I lost something) or se me lo perdi? (it got lost). In that case, se is used to give a more passive tone to perder (not necessarily my fault).

Voila ! :)
 

mountainannie

Platinum
Dec 11, 2003
16,350
1,358
113
elizabetheames.blogspot.com
Aida.. thought I had gotten a great insight and then you took it away. Se me perdio.. It lost itself to me? OK. I do get that nothing is anyone's fault here. I always take the position with Dominicans, that it must be my fault, or someone else's but certainly not THEIR fault.

But can one use this sort of "semi reflexive" form with whatever verb? help help
 

Africaida

Gold
Jun 19, 2009
7,775
1,341
113
Se me perdi? algo would be it got lost (it lost itself almost ) where as yo perd? algo is I lost it

se can also be used as a reflexive such as French , for example: to bathe: me ba?e or me ech? agua

So it is not necessarily used as a reflexive, it depends on the context.

That's my understanding of it. Hope it makes sense and I didn't confuse u any further.

May be a M. Or X.O could clarify ?
 
Aug 6, 2006
8,775
12
38
Se vende is what is called the reflexive substitute for the passive voice.

It means "for sale". If there is an object, then the translation can different. Se venden cachorros. Puppies sold here, or Puppies for sale.

Se habla espa?ol. ~ Spanish spoken. English usually adds the adverb "here" Spanish does not.

Me ba?? is a true reflexive. I nbathed myself. But usually we say I took a bath.

Me cepill? los dientes. I brushed my teeth. Literally, I brushed myself the teeth.

Se me cayeron los lentes means that I accidentally dropped my glasses.
If you did it on purpose, you would not use the reflexive. Dej? caer los lentes.

Se me perdieron los dientes. I lost my teeth. (but I did not mean to).

Then there are the more complicated uses.

Se me hace que se est?n haciendo no m?s. ~ I think they are just pretending (to do something they want you to believe they are doing in earnest).
 
Last edited:
Aug 6, 2006
8,775
12
38
Gracias, 'chas gracias. Gracias por la flor ma?ana vengo por la maceta, pues.


If you listen to Cantinflas in those old films, he has a lot of fun with a sort of cantinflesco double talk that defies translation, and uses reflexives a lot. Cantinflas defies translation into English, just like Robin Williams defies translation into Spanish.
 

Marianopolita

Former Spanish forum Mod 2010-2021
Dec 26, 2003
4,821
766
113
Africaida,


Xavier gave a great response as usual so I am not going to elaborate further. However, I think the key aspect here to understand is that the usage of SE in Spanish is not only reflexive. This pronoun has so many grammatical functions that are non reflexive that one really has to understand what usage the pronoun has in a particular phrase.

If you look in the dictionary sometimes you will see a verb for. e.g. caer and then beside it will say pron. caerse. That means the verb has a pronominal form which means it takes the pronoun SE and thus changes the meaning from the non-pronominal form.

Lavar vs lavarse- lavarse in this case with the pronoun would be an example of reflexive usage- Me lavo.

However, the usage of se in a phrase like this for e.g. se lo di has no reflexive usage at all. This actually is a required grammatical construction because you can’t say le lo di- it becomes se lo di.

The OP’s original question Se vende, se busca, se alquila- those are all equivalents of the passive voice to express those ‘want’ ads. se vende.... house for sale, se busca …. wanted, se alquila…. For rent …. Se habla espa?ol.... Spanish spoken here.

If you study Spanish beyond the intermediate level many grammar books refer to verbs with SE as pronominal verbs because not all verbs that have SE are reflexive.

I loved your comparison to French though. Good for you! Try explaining reflexive and pronominal verbs in French to someone. It’s the same dynamic. I have had people ask me what’s the difference between aller and s’en aller. I love to look at their reaction.


-MP.
 
Last edited:

malko

Campesino !! :)
Jan 12, 2013
5,561
1,345
113
Africaida,



I loved your comparison to French though. Good for you! Try explaining reflexive and pronominal verbs in French to someone. It’s the same dynamic. I have had people ask me what’s the difference between aller and s’en aller. I love to look at their reaction.


-MP.

You all got me lost on the spanishse.
As for aller, it would mean to go wheras s'en aller implies the fact ure are leaving.
Nous allons ? la piscine. We are going to the pool.
Nous nous en allons de la piscine. We are leaving the pool.
 
Aug 6, 2006
8,775
12
38
In Old Spanish (aroiund the time of El Cid, c. 1090 or so) the usage was ge lo di, for I gave it to him. Over the years, ge (pronounced as an Argentine would pronounce lle, "jay" in English, became se (pronounced almost like "shay": the Spanish aspirate their esses strongly).

The rule is no pronouns beginning with l can be used together, and the reason goes back to Vulgar Latin, where it was confusing.
 

Africaida

Gold
Jun 19, 2009
7,775
1,341
113
You all got me lost on the spanishse.
As for aller, it would mean to go wheras s'en aller implies the fact ure are leaving.
Nous allons ? la piscine. We are going to the pool.
Nous nous en allons de la piscine. We are leaving the pool.

Why ?

I am not very good at explaining, but I think it makes sense. Depending on the context se takes different meanings/function just like French i.e. s'en aller et se laver (one is reflexive, the other is not).
 

b?rbaro

New member
Jul 9, 2014
154
0
0
Xavier and Mariano are right.

The construction in "se vende" is what we call "pasiva refleja"
 
Aug 6, 2006
8,775
12
38
Spanish is unlike English, which makes it confusing for Angloparlantes. On the other hand, English is VERY difficult sometimes.

Take the sentence "I hit him in the nose yesterday", asnd insert the word only in every position. It changes the meaning every time you move it.

Or this one: "He called the Ranch Focus because because it was where the Sun's rays meet/ the sons raise meat."
Now there is a hard one to translate.
 

william webster

Platinum
Jan 16, 2009
30,247
4,330
113
don't even start on the 'ough's'

trough , through and rough.....explain that to somebody

there are too many of them....
 

Uzin

Bronze
Oct 26, 2005
1,386
20
38
I try to learn it like se dice (it is being said, people say), se vende (it is being sold, they sell, for sale).