- Thread starter rolfdog
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oler
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Correct. "(Me) huele a . . . " = It smells of . . .
(Yo) huelo a ajo. (I smell of/like garlic.)
Huelo ajo. (I smell garlic.)
I can explain the strange looks the OP gets - because in everyday speech there is no pause after the "a" so both sentences end up sounding the same - confusing the listener
"huelo a ajo/huelo ajo" - they are pronounced identically. Therefore, stick with "huele a ajo/huele peste"
No pause is necessary. When two equal vowels are next to each other, what you hear is the linking of the two sounds, or an elongated sound of the first vowell to avoid the production of staccatos. Fluent speakers of the language do not say: a - ajo.
Much more so than Spanish, the English language lends itself to the production of staccatos - more noticeable in Brittish than in American English - but still there is linking in certain cases.
(To say "huele peste" is not correct.)
Norma
'Peste' for stink (noun) is very Spanish, Andalusian, even.
In Latin America it is more likely to be used as a verb - 'apestar' - to stink.
Dominicans say 'un bajo' - or is it 'vajo' - for stink. Is this a complete Dominicanism? A quick Spanish dictionary search came up with nothing.
In Latin America it is more likely to be used as a verb - 'apestar' - to stink.
Dominicans say 'un bajo' - or is it 'vajo' - for stink. Is this a complete Dominicanism? A quick Spanish dictionary search came up with nothing.
We use the word vajo (vaho) but we also use the word peste.
What is wrong is to say "huele peste."
La peste: A serious disease
peste: Bad odor (?Qu? peste!)
The word has other semantic meanings, too. It comes from the Latin pestis. Consult RAE.
Norma
Maybe not in the DR, but it is correct here. Perhaps in th DR the convention is to say it another way,another way I dont know, but i thought "huele peste" was universal
"huele mal" should be universal then
Latin America vs. Spain
I think this is a perfect example where one has to research first and thoroughly to understand the usage of an expression. My reaction when I read 'huele peste' was 'no existe' BUT experience tells me research first to understand the origin and usage. Instinctively it does not sound correct, then when you analyze it grammatically worse yet it makes no sense. However, believe it or not anything is possible in a language as diverse and grammatically complex as Spanish.
This is a classic example of an expression that may be strictly used and heard in Peninsular Spanish. The equivalents that I have heard and/ or use are:
huele mal
huele feo- very Latin American and probably the most common which I say as well and even more than 'huele mal'.
huele fatal
*huele a peste- which I have heard and was my first thought when I read 'huele peste'.
For those of you who are not familiar with Peninsular Spanish or have little exposure may find certain expressions very strange and out of the ordinary and believe it or not just because it's used in Spain does not mean it's grammatically correct. Latin American linguistic scholars and local affiliates of the RAE in Latin America do take a strong stance on some of the unusual grammatical conventions heard in Spain and rightly so.
Upon completion of my own research 'huele peste' is used/ heard in Spain but I don't think you will hear that used in Latin America and if so the reaction will most likely be the same as on the board here.
-LDG.
I think this is a perfect example where one has to research first and thoroughly to understand the usage of an expression. My reaction when I read 'huele peste' was 'no existe' BUT experience tells me research first to understand the origin and usage. Instinctively it does not sound correct, then when you analyze it grammatically worse yet it makes no sense. However, believe it or not anything is possible in a language as diverse and grammatically complex as Spanish.
This is a classic example of an expression that may be strictly used and heard in Peninsular Spanish. The equivalents that I have heard and/ or use are:
huele mal
huele feo- very Latin American and probably the most common which I say as well and even more than 'huele mal'.
huele fatal
*huele a peste- which I have heard and was my first thought when I read 'huele peste'.
For those of you who are not familiar with Peninsular Spanish or have little exposure may find certain expressions very strange and out of the ordinary and believe it or not just because it's used in Spain does not mean it's grammatically correct. Latin American linguistic scholars and local affiliates of the RAE in Latin America do take a strong stance on some of the unusual grammatical conventions heard in Spain and rightly so.
Upon completion of my own research 'huele peste' is used/ heard in Spain but I don't think you will hear that used in Latin America and if so the reaction will most likely be the same as on the board here.
-LDG.
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Not wanting to hijack the thread, but its amazing to me how in the same language there are discrepancies so large - I can't think of a similar "seperateness" in English. I like to know how things are said over there as i live with and deal with south americans daily - and many things are very different. if you say to an average Spanard "huele peste" is wrong, they would be suprised. Then again, I remember a colombian telling me "me voy a por ella" was wrong, but in Spain they put the "a" in the phrase "voy a por ti"
Chirimoya, if I remember right you too speak Andaluz, no?
Chirimoya, if I remember right you too speak Andaluz, no?
More than just andaluz - llanito/gaditano, but it's got to the point that when I go back people tell me I sound "American" (meaning Latin American). Spanish is my second language, that's probably why the accent is much more susceptible to change than my true Brit RP English accent.
Cafe con lesssshhhhhe, por favor!
I think English has a comparable minefield of variations - grammar, spelling and vocabulary vary quite a lot between the UK, Ireland, the US, Canada, the Antipodes, India, South Africa, etc.
OMG, gaditano! .. more Andaluza then los Sevillanos then (Im in Sevile). I liked Gibraltar, reminded me of Hong Kong...
I guess Im speaking all my spanish wrong then cause I speak Sevillano jeje ..just out of curiosity, how do Latinos identify your accent? The seem to think mine is Spain Spanish mixed with chileno because they have this concept of all of Spain speaking with the ceta.
I guess Im speaking all my spanish wrong then cause I speak Sevillano jeje ..just out of curiosity, how do Latinos identify your accent? The seem to think mine is Spain Spanish mixed with chileno because they have this concept of all of Spain speaking with the ceta.
Suena fatal...
Voy a por 'anything'.....suena terrible and is completely rejected as a correct grammatical form in Latin America. We had this discussion in the forum in brief in 2007 and I have had it as well in my social circle etc. and everyone agreed that it's not an accepted form in Latin America.
In one of my most thorough references of Spanish grammar there's a brief discussion about this construction *a por and it categorically states what I have said and surely what Latin Americans will say- no se dice. I first saw the construction in books written by Jos? Saramago. A renowned Portuguese author whose literature is translated into Spanish and I am sure the translation is top notch. The first time I saw voy a por pan I was puzzled and began to look for some grammatical detail regarding this construction used in Spain. I wanted more detail about the origin because it was obvious that it was not a Latin American form.
More exposure to Spanish will enable you to be more familiar with the word variations, expressions and grammatical forms that do exist but some are simply not correct. Grammatical studies, more exposure to the spoken language and reading will give you some leverage to distinguish between correct and incorrect grammar vs. regionalisms etc.
Rolfdog has remained silent so I am assuming the original question has been answered. Oler a algo (to smell of something). Just replace algo with the noun or adj... huele a rosas, huele a quemao (quemado) etc.
-LDG.
Voy a por 'anything'.....suena terrible and is completely rejected as a correct grammatical form in Latin America. We had this discussion in the forum in brief in 2007 and I have had it as well in my social circle etc. and everyone agreed that it's not an accepted form in Latin America.
In one of my most thorough references of Spanish grammar there's a brief discussion about this construction *a por and it categorically states what I have said and surely what Latin Americans will say- no se dice. I first saw the construction in books written by Jos? Saramago. A renowned Portuguese author whose literature is translated into Spanish and I am sure the translation is top notch. The first time I saw voy a por pan I was puzzled and began to look for some grammatical detail regarding this construction used in Spain. I wanted more detail about the origin because it was obvious that it was not a Latin American form.
More exposure to Spanish will enable you to be more familiar with the word variations, expressions and grammatical forms that do exist but some are simply not correct. Grammatical studies, more exposure to the spoken language and reading will give you some leverage to distinguish between correct and incorrect grammar vs. regionalisms etc.
Rolfdog has remained silent so I am assuming the original question has been answered. Oler a algo (to smell of something). Just replace algo with the noun or adj... huele a rosas, huele a quemao (quemado) etc.
-LDG.
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