Totally different legal scenario than the one presented with this subject of discussion. Your wife was the owner prior of you coming into the picture.
This OP is different - she was married and has been married with the owner (husband) since the original purchase making her an automatic owner, hence no need to freak out, she is/was an owner as well.
Her husband could not had sold that property without her approval and signature even if he wanted to and even that her name wasn't on the title.
DR laws would have prohibited it.
Is it good to have a deslinde?
Of course, its actually great and a must to have it, but that vs. having name added on a title are two different things, the latter on this case (since both are married since the purchase of the property) is not a reason to freak out.
In short, if married, one becomes an automatic owner regardless of name on tittle. That simple.
Agree to all.
A bit off topic. It was in the case of the death of 1 of the spouses before the other.
We learned when we doing the documents relative to the dr assets of my wife prior to our wedding, that i would have to do the same process one day.
Otherwise my brother ( as i have no children ) will have claim on 50% of the assets we aquire after the wedding, but no claim to the 50% of my wife's.
Technically, we buy a house today, if i die in a year, my wife keeps 50% ( as it was aquired after the wedding ), and my brother has claim to the other 50% ( as i have no kids and only 1 brother ).
We didnt go into much detail as we were doing it the other way round, ie my wife deceasing before me, and i would have been left with 0% of the house and land if we hadnt gone through this process.
We had just assumed, falsely, that the
conjoint survivant had at the least
usufruit of all assets, if not straight out ownership, as is the case from the countries we come from ( France and Switzerland ).