For what it's worth a doctor friend of mine was down here years ago and I decided to ask him this direct question about heterosexual men and AIDS. His answer was interesting....
"A man could have heterosexual sex with a woman who has full blown AIDS 1,000 times and likely never contract AIDS. Let's say the odds are 1,000/1 that you'd get it if she has full blown AIDS and you don't use a condom....However, if it's YOU were talking about it's really not 1000/1 it's 50/50. Either you got it this time or you didn't. ALWAYS use a condom"
I'm heard guys saying in DR that a man gets infected if he has PIV(penis inside vagina) sex with an infected woman and he ejaculates inside her.
Anyways, I see that people in DR are very aware of std's and condom use is more of the norm than the exception.
If Dominican men believe in this ejaculation explanation, then they know that not using a condom is risky, since they can ejaculate nside a vagina unexpectedly, and thus at risk. ( and ofcourse, a condom reduces risk for herpes,hpv,chlamydia,syphillis,etc,etc)
I've never heard of this anywhere else. If is harder for a man to get infected with the virus, this might be a logical explanation.
I've never heard of the exact " mechanics of infection". I thought once that somebody can contact hiv if vaginal fluids where around the skin of the penis, but apparently, the virus gets inside thru the uretha. ( this is assuming there is no cuts on the penis, that makes contact with the vaginal fluids).
During sex education in hs. They always talked about " vaginal fluids", but they never said , how the vaginal fluids get in thru a penis.
the " ejaculation" explanation is that the vagina fluids of an infected woman gets mixed up with the semen of the man,and can swim into the uretha.
If a man doesn't cum, or maybe " pre-cum", then the risk of contracting the virus thru PIV(penis inside vagina) sex is very reduced.
What the experts here say about that?